Exam 70-332 Advanced Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013

Wednesday, August 16, 2017

300-170 DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation

Exam Number 300-170 DCVAI
Associated Certifications CCNP Data Center
Duration 90 minutes (60-70 questions)
Available Languages English

This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of implementing data center infrastructure including virtualization, automation, Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure (ACI), ACI network resources, and, ACI management and monitoring.

Exam Description
The Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation (DCVAI) exam (300-170) is a 90-minute, 60–70 question assessment. This exam is one of the exams associated with the CCNP Data Center Certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of implementing Cisco data center infrastructure including virtualization, automation, Application Centric Infrastructure, Application Centric Infrastructure network resources, and Application Centric Infrastructure management and monitoring. The course, Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation v6 (DCVAI), helps candidates to prepare for this exam because the content is aligned with the exam topics.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.0 Implement Infrastructure Virtualization 19%

1.1 Implement logical device separation

1.1.a VDC
1.1.b VRF

1.2 Implement virtual switching technologies

2.0 Implement Infrastructure Automation 16%

2.1 Implement configuration profiles

2.1.a Auto-config
2.1.b Port profiles
2.1.c Configuration synchronization

2.2 Implement POAP

2.3 Compare and contrast different scripting tools

2.3.a EEM
2.3.b Scheduler
2.3.c SDK

3.0 Implementing Application Centric Infrastructure 27%

3.1 Configure fabric discovery parameters

3.2 Implement access policies

3.2.a Policy groups
3.2.b Protocol policies
3.2.b [i[ LLDP, CDP, LCAP, and link-level
3.2.c AEP
3.2.d Domains
3.2.e Pools
3.2.f Profiles
3.2.f [i] Switch
3.2.f [ii] Interface

3.3 Implement VMM domain integrations

3.4 Implement tenant-based policies

3.4.a EPGs
3.4.a [i] Pathing
3.4.a [ii] Domains
3.4.b Contracts
3.4.b [i] Consumer
3.4.b [ii] Providers
3.4.b [iii] vzAny (TCAM conservation)
3.4.b [iv] Inter-tenant
3.4.c Private networks
3.4.c [i] Enforced/unenforced
3.4.d Bridge domains
3.4.d [i] Unknown unicast settings
3.4.d [ii] ARP settings
3.4.d [iii] Unicast routing

4.0 Implementing Application Centric Infrastructure Network Resources 25%

4.1 Implement external network integration

4.1.a External bridge network
4.1.b External routed network

4.2 Implement packet flow

4.2.a Unicast
4.2.b Multicast
4.2.c Broadcast
4.2.d Endpoint database

4.3 Describe service insertion and redirection

4.3.a Device packages
4.3.b Service graphs
4.3.c Function profiles

5.0 Implementing Application Centric Infrastructure Management and Monitoring 13%

5.1 Implement management

5.1.a In-band management
5.1.b Out-of-band management

5.2 Implement monitoring

5.2.a SNMP
5.2.b Atomic counters
5.2.c Health score evaluations

5.3 Implement security domains and role mapping

5.3.a AAA
5.3.b RBAC

5.4 Compare and contrast different scripting tools

5.4.a SDK
5.4.b API Inspector / XML
QUESTION 1
You have a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch. When must you use the system VLAN?

A. to use VMware vMotion
B. to perform an ESXi iSCSI boot
C. to perform a VM iSCSI boot
D. to perform an ESXi NFS boot

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which option must be defined to apply a configuration across a potentially large number of switches in the most scalable way?

A. a configuration policy
B. a group policy
C. an interface policy
D. a switch profile

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two options are benefits of using the configuration synchronization feature? (Choose two )

A. Supports the feature command
B. Supports existing session and port profile functionality
C. can be used by any Cisco Nexus switch
D. merges configurations when connectivity is established between peers O supports FCoE in vPC topologies

Answer: A,C

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Sunday, August 6, 2017

C2090-930 IBM SPSS Modeler Professional v3

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 67%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Specialist - SPSS Modeler Professional v3

This test will certify that the successful candidate has the fundamental knowledge to participate as an effective team member in the implementation of IBM SPSS Modeler Professional analytics solutions.

SPSS Modeler Professional Functionality (10%)
Identify the purpose of each palette
Describe the use of SuperNodes
Describe the advantages of SPSS Modeler scripting

Business Understanding and Planning (10%)
Describe the CRISP-DM process
Describe how to map business objectives to data mining goals

Data Understanding (15%)
Describe appropriate nodes for summary statistics, distributions, and visualizations (for example, graph nodes, output nodes)
Describe data quality issues (for example, outliers and missing data)

Data Preparation (20%)
Describe methods for data transformation (for example, Derive node, Auto Data Prep node, Data Audit node and Filler node)
Describe how to integrate data (for example, Merge node and Append node)
Describe sampling, partitioning, and balancing data (for example, Sample node, Balance node and Partition node)
Describe methods for refining data (for example, Select node, Filter node and Aggregate node)

Modeling (20%)
Describe classification models (including GLM and regression)
Describe segmentation models
Describe association models
Describe auto modeling nodes
Demonstrate how to combine models using the Ensemble node

Evaluation and Analysis (15%)
Demonstrate how to interpret SPSS Modeler results (for example, using Evaluation node, Analysis node, and data visualizations)
Describe how to use model nugget interfaces

Deployment (10%)
Describe how to use Export nodes (tools for exporting data)
Identify how to score new data using models
Identify SPSS Modeler reporting methods

IBM Certified Specialist - SPSS Modeler Professional v3

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The candidate has knowledge of analytical solutions, understands IBM SPSS Modeler capabilities, has knowledge of the IBM SPSS Modeler data model, can apply consistent methodologies to every engagement and develop SPSS predictive models.

To achieve the IBM Certified Specialist - SPSS Modeler Professional certification, candidates must possess the skills identified under Recommended Prerequisite Skills, if any, and pass one (1) exam.

Upon completion of this technical certification the successful candidate shows having the fundamental knowledge to participate as an effective team member in the implementation of IBM SPSS Modeler Professional analytics solution.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
The following are topics that are assumed before your test preparation and will not be tested on :
Database and ODBC concepts
Basic proficiency in statistical concepts
Knowledge of basic computer programming
QUESTION 1
You have collected data about a set of patients, all of whom suffered from the same illness. During their course of treatment, each patient responded to one of five medications. The column. Drug, is a character field that describes the medication. You need to find out which proportion of the patients responded to each drug.
Which node should be used?

A. Web node
B. Distribution node
C. Sim Fit node
D. Evaluation node

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
When describing data, which two nodes address value types? (Choose two.)

A. Data Audit node
B. Statistics node
C. Type node
D. Report node

Answer: A,C

QUESTION 3
How many stages are there in the CRISP-DM process model?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An organization wants to determine why they are losing customers.
Which supervised modeling technique would be used to accomplish this task?

A. PCA
B. QUEST
C. Apriori
D. Kohonen

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You want to create a Filter node to keep only a subset of the variables used in model building, based on predictor importance.
Which menu in the model nugget browser provides this functionality?

A. File
B. Preview
C. View
D. Generate

Answer: C

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Friday, July 21, 2017

C2090-623 IBM Cognos Analytics Administrator V11

The IBM Certified Administrator - IBM Cognos Analytics Administrator V11 (as of R3) (also known as a Cognos System Administrator) is responsible for the administration of servers and content. This includes report execution, administrative tasks, server & network tasks, monitoring environments, and security. This individual participates in project implementations as an effective team member without supervision.

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 63%
Languages: English

The IBM Certified Administrator - IBM Cognos Analytics Administrator V11 (as of R3) (also known as a Cognos System Administrator) is responsible for the administration of servers and content. This includes report execution, administrative tasks, server & network tasks, monitoring environments, and security. This individual participates in project implementations as an effective team member without supervision.

Server Environment (20%)
Identify the architecture and components
Describe installation options and configurations
Demonstrate tasks to implement configuration and performance tuning
Describe tasks used to manage components
Demonstrate troubleshooting techniques in the server environment
Describe maintaining configuration settings

Administrative Tasks (25%)
Describe the steps and options in content administration
Describe the steps of creating a datasource
Describe configuring the memory settings
Demonstrate balancing the server components
Describe using LifeCycle Manager (LCM)
Describe system backup and restoration
Describe using administrative portal options
Identify using Library management

Report Execution (15%)
Identify techniques to organize report content in the portal
Describe the request flow of report execution
Describe how to manage and schedule reports
Describe how to manage report execution

Security Tasks (20%)
Describe how to secure an environment
Describe how authentication is implemented
Identify how authorization is achieved and implemented
Describe how to secure content

Monitoring (20%)
Describe how to implement and manage audit logging
Demonstrate troubleshooting techniques
Describe how to implement and work with tracing
Identify how to use additional performance tools
Describe how to monitor system components

IBM Certified Administrator - IBM Cognos Analytics Administrator V11

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The IBM Certified Administrator - IBM Cognos Analytics Administrator V11 (as of R3) (also known as a Cognos System Administrator) is responsible for the administration of servers and content. This includes report execution, administrative tasks, server & network tasks, monitoring environments, and security. This individual participates in project implementations as an effective team member without supervision.

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Tuesday, July 4, 2017

RC0-C02 CASP Recertification Exam

Eligibility Candidates MUST have
An active CASP CE certification earned by passing exam CAS-001.
Received an email from CompTIA containing a Private Access Code (PAC).
Exam Description The CASP Recertification Exam covers these domains:
1.0 Enterprise Security (42% of Total)
2.0 Risk Management and Incident Response (11% of Total)
3.0 Research and Analysis (17% of Total)
4.0 Technical Integration of Enterprise Components (30% of Total)
Number of Questions: 40
Type of Questions Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response)
Length of Test: 60 Minutes
Passing Score: Pass/Fail only. No scaled score.
Delivery: Non-proctored Pearson IBT
CEU Impact
Only candidates with an active CASP CE certification will receive CEU credit.
Passing the exam will automatically renew your existing CASP CE. Please allow 1-3 days for your record to be updated.
INTRODUCTION
The CompTIA Advanced Security Practioner (CASP)
Recertification exm is one way for CompTIA certified professionals to keep their CASP certification active. A CASP certification earned on or after January 1st, 2011 is valid for three years from the date the certification was earned. The certification must be renewed within three years in order for the individual to remain certified. To remain certified, individuals may:
Re-take (and pass) the current certification exam (CAS-002)
Participate in continuing education activities
Take (and pass) the CASP recertification exam (RC0-C02)
The CASP Recertification Exam RC0-C02 bridges the competencies measured by the CASP CAS-001 exam and the CAS-002 exam. The exam (RC0-C02) blueprint includes the objectives new to the CAS-002 series and also assesses the highest weighted competencies that appear on the previous (CAS-001)exam (i.e., the knowledge and skills rated by SMEs as most relevant for on-the-job performance).
NOTE: Availability of RC0-C02 is LIMITED TO THOSE who have kept their CASP certification active and have not taken and passed the current CAS-002 series exam.
The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Certification Exam is accredited by ANSI to show compliance with the ISO 17024 Standard and, as such, undergoes regular reviews and updates to the exam objectives.
The following CASP Recertification RC0-C02 exam objectives result from subject matter expert workshops and industry-wide survey results regarding the skills and knowledge required of an advanced-level security professional.
This examination blueprint includes domain weighting, test objectives, and example content. Example topics and concepts are included to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a comprehensive listing of all the content of this examination.
Candidates are encouraged to use this document to guide their studies. The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the extent to which they are CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Recertification
QUESTION 1 – (Topic 1)
ABC Corporation has introduced token-based authentication to system administrators due to the risk of password compromise. The tokens have a set of HMAC counter-based codes and are valid until they are used. Which of the following types of authentication mechanisms does this statement describe?
A. TOTP
B. PAP
C. CHAP
D. HOTP
Answer: D
Explanation:
The question states that the HMAC counter-based codes and are valid until they are used. These are “one-time” use codes.
HOTP is an HMAC-based one-time password (OTP) algorithm.
HOTP can be used to authenticate a user in a system via an authentication server. Also, if some more steps are carried out (the server calculates subsequent OTP value and sends/displays it to the user who checks it against subsequent OTP value calculated by his token), the user can also authenticate the validation server.
Both hardware and software tokens are available from various vendors. Hardware tokens implementing OATH HOTP tend to be significantly cheaper than their competitors based on proprietary algorithms. Some products can be used for strong passwords as well as OATH HOTP.
Software tokens are available for (nearly) all major mobile/smartphone platforms.

QUESTION 2 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following technologies prevents an unauthorized HBA from viewing iSCSI target information?
A. Deduplication
B. Data snapshots
C. LUN masking
D. Storage multipaths
Answer: C
Explanation:
A logical unit number (LUN) is a unique identifier that designates individual hard disk devices or grouped devices for address by a protocol associated with a SCSI, iSCSI, Fibre Channel (FC) or similar interface. LUNs are central to the management of block storage arrays shared over a storage area network (SAN).
LUN masking subdivides access to a given port. Then, even if several LUNs are accessed through the same port, the server masks can be set to limit each server’s access to the appropriate LUNs. LUN masking is typically conducted at the host bus adapter (HBA) or switch level.

QUESTION 3 – (Topic 1)
An application present on the majority of an organization’s 1,000 systems is vulnerable to a buffer overflow attack. Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive way to resolve the issue?
A. Deploy custom HIPS signatures to detect and block the attacks.
B. Validate and deploy the appropriate patch.
C. Run the application in terminal services to reduce the threat landscape.
D. Deploy custom NIPS signatures to detect and block the attacks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If an application has a known issue (such as susceptibility to buffer overflow attacks) and a patch is released to resolve the specific issue, then the best solution is always to deploy the patch.
A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information – which has to go somewhere – can overflow into adjacent buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them.
Although it may occur accidentally through programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity. In buffer overflow attacks, the extra data may contain codes designed to trigger specific actions, in effect sending new instructions to the attacked computer that could, for example, damage the user’s files, change data, or disclose confidential information. Buffer overflow attacks are said to have
arisen because the C programming language supplied the framework, and poor programming practices supplied the vulnerability.

QUESTION 4 – (Topic 1)
A process allows a LUN to be available to some hosts and unavailable to others. Which of the following causes such a process to become vulnerable?
A. LUN masking
B. Data injection
C. Data fragmentation
D. Moving the HBA
Answer: D

QUESTION 5– (Topic 1)
select id, firstname, lastname from authors
User input= firstname= Hack;man
lastname=Johnson
Which of the following types of attacks is the user attempting?
A. XML injection
B. Command injection
C. Cross-site scripting
D. SQL injection
Answer: D
Explanation:
The code in the question is SQL code. The attack is a SQL injection attack.
SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in
an application’s software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed
and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.

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Tuesday, May 30, 2017

C2090-317 DB2 11 System Administrator for z/OSTest information

Number of questions: 58
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 65%
Languages: English

Recommended Prerequisites
Working knowledge of DB2 z/OS in a system administration capacity
Support of DB2 on a z/OS environment
Knowledge of z/OS architecture
Knowledge of Subsystem Parameters (DSNZPARMs)
Knowledge of DB2 data sharing environment

This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to describe the architecture and administer the processes required to plan, install, manage, tune and secure DB2 for z/OS environments.

Section 1 - Installation and Migration (20%)
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of the installation/migration plan process
Ability to identify additional environments necessary (WLM, Unix system services, XML schema support, RACF or equivalent, SMS)
Given a scenario, describe how to execute the installation/migration plan
Evaluate appropriate subsystem parameter (DSNZPARM) settings
Evaluate appropriate migration to extended RBA/LRSN tasks

Section 2 - Security and Auditing (12%)
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to protect DB2 subsystem and resources (implementing external security only)
Knowledge of various System authorities
Support for distributed identities, connection level security enforcement
Program authorization and masking including enhancements
Describe auditing techniques (policies)
Describe role-based security and the advantage of deploying it (trusted context)

Section 3 - System Operation and Maintenance (17%)
Describe how to use and manage DB2 components and processes (adminitrative task scheduler) (REPAIR, STOSPACE, DSNJU003, DSN1COMP)
Demonstrate knowledge of DB2 commands
Given a scenario, describe how to monitor and control DB2 threads
Knowledge of DB2 data sharing system operation and maintenance
Knowledge of distributed functionality

Section 4 - Backup and Recovery (17%)
Demonstrate knowledge of advanced backup and recovery (system level, data set level, undo, redo, backup, flash copy, DSS, HSM, DSNJU004, DSN1COPY, DSN1LOGP, DSN1PRNT, Extended RBA, etc.)

Given a scenario, describe how to recover from system failures (restart, conditional restart)
Describe the process for disaster recovery
Describe DB2 data sharing recovery scenarios
Knowledge of consideration/impact of extended and non-extended RBA/LRSN tasks

Section 5 - Performance and Tuning (22%)
Given a scenario, analyze performance
Demonstrate knowledge of how buffer pools and system parameters (DSNZPARMs) can affect performance - concurrency
Demonstrate knowledge of persistance threads (bind parameters, reallocate, protected threads)
Demonstrate knowledge of statistics, tools, and traces used for monitoring (trace definitions)
Given a scenario, describe techniques to achieve efficient use of memory (flash memory, large buffer pools) Statement Cache (Dynamic, Static, EDM Pool)
Demonstrate knowledge of workload manager (WLM) settings for DB2
Knowledge of RUNSTATS (autonomic, manual, RTS, and feedback)
Knowledge of Reorg in the context of system tuning and performance (system level settings, subsystem parameters, reduction of indirect references)
Knowledge of specialty engines and how they affect performance (ziips)

Section 6 - Troubleshooting (13%)
Given a scenario, describe which documentation can be used to solve a problem
Demonstrate knowledge of DB2 commands and traces for troubleshooting
Describe how to identify distributed threads
Demonstrate knowledge of diagnostic utilities (REPAIR, DSNJU003, DSN1CHKR)
Given a scenario, identify and resolve DB2 data sharing problems

IBM Certified System Administrator - DB2 11 for z/OS

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to describe the architecture and administer the processes required to plan, install, manage, tune and secure DB2 for z/OS environments.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Working knowledge of DB2 z/OS in a system administration capacity
Support of DB2 on a z/OS environment
Knowledge of z/OS architecture
Knowledge of Subsystem Parameters (DSNZPARMs)
Knowledge of DB2 data sharing environment

QUESTION 1
In complex DB2 recovery scenarios, it is important to understand the scope of which objects
require recovery.
Which DB2 utility provides a list of the names of all table spaces in the table space set that is
specified and a list of all the tables in those table spaces?

A. CHECK
B. REPORT
C. QUIESCE
D. RECOVER

Answer: D
Reference:http://www-
01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSEPEK_10.0.0/com.ibm.db2z10.doc.ugref/src/tpc/db2z_re
portsyntax.dita

QUESTION 2
The -ALTER UTILITY command changes the values of certain parameters of a utility.
Which two utilities can this command be issued against?

A. COPY
B. REORG
C. MODIFY
D. REBUILD
E. RECOVER

Answer: B,D
Reference:http://www-
01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSEPEK_11.0.0/com.ibm.db2z11.doc.admin/src/tpc/db2z_
monitronlineutilities.dita

QUESTION 3
You execute the following SQL against the CDB (Communications Database) of your DB2
subsystem:
INSERT INTO SYSIBM.IPNAMES
(UNKNAME.SECURITY_OUT.USERNAMES,IBMREQD.IPADDR) VALUES ('REMOTEDB'. 'P\ 'O'.
'N', *123.34.45.56');
INSERT INTO SYSIBM.IPLIST (LINKNAMEJPADDRJBMREQD) VALUES ('REMOTEDB',
'123.34.45.56', *N');
INSERT INTO SYSIBM.IPLIST (LINKNAMEJPADDRJBMREQD) VALUES C REMOTEDB',
'123.34.45.57', 'N');
INSERT INTO SYSIBM.USERNAMES
(TYPE,AUTHID.LINKNAME,NEWAUTHID.PASSWORD,IBMREQD) VALUES (T, 'USER1'.
'USER2\ ", ,PWD2,1 *N');
INSERT INTO SYSIBM.USERNAMES
(TYPE,AUTHID.LINKNAME,NEWAUTHID.PASSWORDJBMREQD) VALUES ('O', 'USER1'.
'USER3', *', 'PWD3', 'N');
There is no trusted connection to REMOTEDB. USER1 issues a query addressing remote data
source REMOTEDB on your DB2 subsystem.
Which authorization id will be used on the remote data source REMOTEDB?

A. USER1
B. USER2
C. USER3
D. USER4

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Which combination of subsystem parameter values will enable connection pooling for idle
distributed database access threads?

A. Specify subsystem parameter CMTSTAT = ACTIVE and set CONDBAT = MAXDBAT.
B. Specify subsystem parameter CMTSTAT = INACTIVE and set CONDBAT < MAXDBAT.
C. Specify subsystem parameter CMTSTAT = ACTIVE and set CONDBAT > MAXDBAT.
D. Specify subsystem parameter CMTSTAT = INACTIVE and set CONDBAT >MAXDBAT.

Answer: C
Reference:http://db2onlinehandbook.com/?p=1263

QUESTION 5
You wish to set the threshold at which data in the class castout queue is cast out to disk for group
buffer pool GBP10. You want the threshold to be 1000 pages.
Which parameter setting in the command -ALTER GBPOOL(GBP10) will accomplish this?

A. GBPOOLT(10)
B. CLASST(0.1000)
C. CLASST(10.1000)
D. GBPCHKPT(1000)

Answer: A

Explanation:

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C2090-317 DB2 11 System Administrator for z/OSTest information

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Saturday, May 27, 2017

C2090-312 IBM DB2 11 DBA for z/OS

Test information:
Number of questions: 67
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 59%
Languages: English

The IBM Certified Database Administrator is the lead database administrator (DBA) for the DB2 product on the z/OS operating system. This individual has significant experience as a DBA and extensive knowledge of DB2, specifically the new features and functionality related to version 11. This person is capable of performing the intermediate to advanced tasks related to database design and implementation, operation and recovery, security and auditing, performance, and installation and migration/upgrades specific to the z/OS operating system.

Section 1 - Database Design and Implementation (24%)
Design tables and views (columns, data type considerations for large objects, XML, column sequences, user-defined data types, temp tables, clone tables, temporal tables, MQTs, new archive transparency, etc.)
Explain the different performance implications of identity column, row ID, and sequence column definitions (applications, utilities), hash access
Design indexes (key structures, type of index, index page structure, index column order, index space, clustering, compression, index on expression, include column)
Design table spaces (choose a DB2 page size, clustering) and determine space attributes
Perform partitioning (table partitioning, index partitioning, DPSI, universal table space)
Normalize data (E-R model, process model) and translate data model into physical model (denormalize tables)
Implement user-defined integrity rules (referential integrity, user-defined functions & data types, check constraints, triggers)
Use the appropriate method to alter DB2 objects (table, column, drop column, alter limit key, index, table space, database, online schema)
Understand impacts of different encoding schemes

Section 2 - Operation and Recovery (22%)
Knowledge of commands for normal operational conditions (START, STOP, DISPLAY)
Knowledge of commands and utility control statements for use in abnormal conditions (RECOVER, RESTART)
Load and unload data into and from the created tables
Reorganize objects when necessary (reorg avoidance, automatic mapping table, new reorg features)
Monitor the object by collecting statistics (run stats, improved in-line statistics, real time stats, autonomic stats, and statistics related stored procedures)
Monitor and manage threads and utilities (distributed, local, MODIFY DDF)
Identify and respond to advisory/restrictive statuses on objects
Identify and perform problem determination (traces and other utilities, plans and packages)
Perform health checks (check utilities, offline utilities, catalog queries)

Identify and perform actions that are needed to protect databases from planned and unplanned outages (tables spaces; indexes; full pack; hardware; Flash copies; full, incremental, reference update; copy-to-copy, non-data objects; catalog) and recovery scenarios (off-site recovery, data sharing, table spaces, indexes, roll forward, roll back, current point in time, prior point in time, system point in time copy and restore, catalog and directory, offline utilities (DSN1), new Extended RBA and LRSN)

Section 3 - Security and Auditing (6%)
Understanding privileges and authorities
Protect access to DB2 and its objects
Audit DB2 activity and resources and identify primary audit techniques
Identify and respond appropriately to symptoms from trace output or error messages that signify security problems

Section 4 - Performance (22%)
Plan for performance monitoring by setting up and running monitoring procedures (continuous, detailed, periodic, exception)
Analyze performance (manage and tune CPU requirements, memory, I/O, locks, response time, index and table compression)
Analyze and respond to RUNSTATS statistics analysis (real-time, batch, catalog queries, reports, histograms)
Determine when and how to perform REBIND (APCOMPARE and APREUSE)
Describe DB2 interaction with WLM (distributed, stored procedures, user-defined functions, RRS)
Interpret traces (statistics, accounting, performance) & explain the performance impact of different DB2 traces
Identify and respond to critical performance metrics (excessive I/O wait times, lock-latch waits and CPU waits; deadlocks, timeouts, RID failures)
Review and tune SQL (access paths, EXPLAIN tables, awareness of query transformation and predicate processing, use of Virtual Indexes)
Dynamic SQL Performance (DSN_STATEMENT_CACHE_TABLE, parameter markers, literal replacement, REOPT)
Design features for performance (hash row access, inline LOBs)
Knowledge of controlling access paths (SYSSTATSFEEDBACK table, SYSQUERY)

Section 5 - Installation and Migration / Upgrade (7%)
Knowledge and understanding of the critical ZPARMs (database-, object- and application-oriented, application compatibility - no DDF)
Identify and explain Datasharing components and commands
Knowledge of pre-migration checklists
Knowledge of catalog and directory (new tables, change tables, new objects)

Section 6 - Additional Database Functionality (10%)
Knowledge of SQL constructs (temporal, archive, table functions, built-in scalar functions, recursive, common table expresssions)
Knowledge of SQL/PL (Array data type, new array data type functions, functions and procedures)
Knowledge of SQL/XML (results database, XML functions, cross loader with XML, xpath expressions, FLWOR, pattern matching and regular expressions)
Knowledge of Stored Procedures (native, external, autonomous, ziip considerations)
Knowledge of User-defined functions (scalar functions, table functions, SQL/external functions)
Knowledge of global variables (in stored procedures, in SQL/PL, distributed considerations)

Section 7 - Distributed Access (7%)
Implementing distributed data access (communications database)
Knowledge of ZPARMs (for DDF)
Knowledge of DDF setup (DB2 Connect, Client, Drivers, profile tables, RLMT)
Understanding and implementing distributed data access (perf settings for DDF access)

IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 11 DBA for z/OS

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The IBM Certified Database Administrator is the lead database administrator (DBA) for the DB2 product on the z/OS operating system. This individual has significant experience as a DBA and extensive knowledge of DB2, specifically the new features and functionality related to version 11. This person is capable of performing the intermediate to advanced tasks related to database design and implementation, operation and recovery, security and auditing, performance, and installation and migration/upgrades specific to the z/OS operating system.

QUESTION 1
Given this statement:
RUNSTATS TABLESPACE DB1 TS1 RESET ACCESSPATH HISTORY ACCESSPATH
Which statement is FALSE?

A. It resets all real-time statistics (RTS) for DB1TS1.
B. It resets all access path statistics for DB1TS1 in the catalog.
C. It invalidates the dynamic statement cache for table space DB1TS1.
D. It externalizes current access paths statistics for DB1 TS1 to HIST catalog tables.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
What is the least disruptive way of externalizing real-time statistics for table space DB1TS1?

A. -SET LOG LOGLOAD(O)
B. -DISPLAY DB(DB1)SPACENAM(TS1)
C. RUNSTATS TABLESPACE DB1TS1
D. -ACCESS DB(DB1) SPACENAM(TSI) MODE(STATS)

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which statement is true for data in columns defined with data type XML?

A. Data stored in XML columns cannot be indexed.
B. It is possible to define the XML column with an INLINEJ.ENGTH.
C. You can partially UPDATE, DELETE from, and INSERT into an XML document.
D. If you want to change an existing XML document, you have to replace the whole document in the XML column.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Assuming you are the SYSADM, what is the effect of executing the EXPLAIN STMTCACHE ALL
statement?

A. The table DSN_STATEMENT_CACHE_TABLE table contains a row for each SQL statement in the Local Dynamic Statement Cache.
B. The PLAN_TABLE contains the access path of each SQL statement in the Local Dynamic Statement Cache.
C. The PLAN_TABLE contains the access path of each SQL statement in the Global Dynamic Statement Cache.
D. The table DSN_STATEMENT_CACHE_TABLE table contains a row for each SQL statement in the Global Dynamic Statement Cache.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which two options can be specified in order to access a system-period temporal table for a
specific point in time guaranteeing accurate results?

A. A period-specification placed in the FROM clause of a subselect.
B. A period-specification placed in the WHERE clause of a subselect
C. A SELECT statement predicate against the transaction start ID of the base table.
D. A predicate against the start and end columns of the base table placed in the WHERE clause of a subselect.
E. A SET of the CURRENT TEMPORAL SYSTEM_TIME special register to a non-null value prior to a SELECT against the temporal table.

Answer: C,E

Explanation:

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